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PUZZLING PASSAGES and PROBLEMS ■
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By R. A. TORREY
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ignorant of Greek. His gift is not teaching. Every Bible teacher in the Institute regards his article as absurd and calculated to do harm. Now in regard to the first question. There is absolutely no warrant in the Greek for this translation. To any one who has any large knowledge of Greek and New Testament usage the ¡jtranslation is abso lutely absurd. The word which the writer to whom our question refers renders “heal ing” cannot by any possibility be rendered in that way, either according to its ety mology or its usage. It means exactly what it is given in both the Authorized and Revised Versions, “salvation,” or “deliverance,” or “preservation,” or “safety.” ■Of course the salvation may be from sickness as well as salvation from other things, but the word itself does not mean “healing.” An entirely different Greek word means “healing.” Of course, though the word means “salvation,” just as it is rendered in the Authorized and Revised Versions, the word could be used of “salvation” from sickness, which would be healing, but that is not what the word itself means, and furthermore, in not one single instance in the New Testament is it used of salvation from sickness. It is used forty-six times in the New Testament, and as said, not in one single instance, even < in our Authorized Version, is it rendered “healing.” It is rendered, in our Author ized Version, “health” in one instance (Acts 27:34), and in one instance only, and in that instance “health,” as is evident from the context, does not mean “healing,” and the Revised Version very properly corrects this mistranslation to “safety.” Not only is the word never translated “healing” in any one of the forty-six instances in which it) is used, but further still, in not one single
Is there any warrant in the Greek for translating the word “salvation” by “heal ing,” in Acts 4 : 12 , so that the passage would read: “Neither is there healing in any other: for there is none other name under 'heaven given among men whereby we must be healed?" I f not, why does one of the teachers of the Bible Institute of Los Angeles, in the Alliance Weekly for August 12 , 1916 , write that it should be so translated? In answer to this question let me say first of all that the article to which reference is made, appearing in the Alliance Weekly for August 12, 1916, is not by a teacher in the Bible Institute of Los Angeles. It' is true.that the editorial note that precedes the article might imply that the article came from some one connected with the teaching force of the Bible Institute of Los Angeles, and it says, “Coming from this source, had added interest and em phasis.” The writer of the article is not a teacher in the Bible Institute of Los Angeles and never was a teacher in the Bible Institute of Los Angeles. He did attend some of the classes of the Bible Institute a few years ago for a few weeks, but not even as a regularly enrolled student, and he never took the examinations even for a single term. He is at the present time an employee of the Bible Institute, but in a purely mercantile posi tion, and is in no way whatever connected with the teaching force. It is only fair to say that he is a most excellent Christian man, having the respect of those who know him well, but it is a mystery why he should ever attempt to tell what the Greek Testament teaches, for he frankly admitted to me a few days ago that he could not even read the letters of the Greek alphabet if he were shown them. He is entirely
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